junebug80 (junebug80) wrote in thequestionclub,
junebug80
junebug80
thequestionclub

So, I just finished reading The Great Gatsby. Something that really bothered me in the book is that he constantly used would of instead of would've. A lot. Now, I know sometimes authors write like that to show how a character speaks or to write in the "language of the character", but ususally that applies to how a character sounds. They change the spelling so you can get a character's accent/dialect in your head. Would of and would've have the same sound. So, why would he use the incorrect version? Also, I'd think maybe he was trying to point out that the "narrator" had bad grammar or something, but it was the only gramatical error really in the entire book. So, even if he was trying to make a statement about the narrator, why would he choose only one thing that he would write incorrectly?
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